吉林省长春市2024年中考英语真题

英语主要研究英语语言、语法、口语以及英美等英语国家的文化与历史等方面的基本理论和知识，那么关于2024年长春中考英语试卷怎么做呢?以下是小编整理的一些2024年长春中考英语试卷及答案，仅供参考。

2024年长春中考英语试卷

本试卷包括五道大题，共8页。满分为90分，考试时间为100分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

注意事项：

1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码准确粘贴在条形码区域内。

2. 答题时，考生务必按照考试要求在答题卡上的指定区域内作答，在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。

一、基础知识(共10分)

Ⅰ. 单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。

1. My birthday ________ is a toy panda. It’s from my grandma.

A. trip B. month C. gift D. color

2. The Qinghai Lake is ________ lake in China. It is in Qinghai  Province.

A. large B. larger C. largest D. the largest

3. Lili ________ be at home. She has gone to the farm to pick apples.

A. mustn’t B. can’t C. must D. can

4. —Mom, could I ________ the TV? I want to watch the news about space.

—Of course. And don’t sit too close.

A. turn on B. turn off C. put on D. put off

5. Look! The students ________ an art class in the park.

A. have B. were having C. had D. are having

6. —________ are these sports socks?

—10 yuan for 3 pairs.

A. How many B. How much C. How often D. How long

7. —There ________ many ancient Chinese poems in this book. Which one do  you like best?

—Climbing a Tower by Wang Zhihuan.

A. are B. is C. were D. was

8. As a science lover, I hope I can invent a bike ________ can fly in the  sky.

A. where B. when C. which D. who

9. ________ helpful the speech is! It tells us to use the Internet  safely.

A. What B. What a C. How D. What an

10. —The Mid-Autumn Festival is coming. I wonder ________.

—In your uncle’s home.

A. where we will celebrate it B. when we will celebrate it

C. where will we celebrate it D. when will we celebrate it

二、交际运用(共5分)

根据对话内容，运用下面所给的句子选项补全对话。选项中有一项是多余的。

(Lei Lei and Han Lu are talking in the English corner.)

Han Lu: Hi, Lei Lei. You look excited. ___11___

Lei Lei: Yes. We will have an International Summer Camp.

Han Lu: Really? It’s cool.

Lei Lei: Guess what? We will work for the camp.

Han Lu: Wow, wonderful! ___12___

Lei Lei: We can introduce something special about our hometown.

Han Lu: That’s easy. Changbai Mountain and the Songhua River are my  favorites.

Lei Lei: I have different ideas. ___13___

Han Lu: Haha! Very funny. I know you will say that.

Lei Lei: Don’t forget Changchun is also an ice and snow city.

Han Lu: ___14___ Winter sports in Jilin are famous around the world.

Lei Lei: That’s for sure. I hope we can tell the foreign friends more about  our hometown.

Han Lu: ___15___

Lei Lei: Oh! It’s time for class. Let’s go.

Han Lu: OK.

A. Me, too.

B. You’re right.

C. What can we do then?

D. Is there any good news?

E. What’s your favorite food?

F. My favorites are tieguodun and guobaorou.

三、阅读(共45分)

Ⅲ. 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)

阅读短文，掌握其大意，然后从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。

When my friend suggested that we join the new Tai Chi (太极拳) Club, I thought  he was ___16___. I always believed tai chi was for old people. However, after  the first class, I ___17___ that I was wrong. It was amazing. Tai chi led to a  big ___18___ both in my body and mind.

I still remember my first few tai chi classes. The basic skill I learned  was keeping a balance (平衡). An action was called “golden rooster (公鸡) standing  on one leg”. Following the instructions, I tried to ___19___ on one leg. It  seemed that it was not a hard one, but I still ___20___ many times. Soon, I felt  bored and ___21___ from practicing over and over again. I started to ___22___  myself. Maybe I was really ___23___ in this kind of exercise. Just then, my  coach taught me how to relax myself. Step by step, I made ___24___. Later, I was  able to do more difficult actions and feel peace of mind as well. My love for  tai chi became ___25___. I even wanted to look into the ancient Chinese culture  behind tai chi.

I discovered tai chi is deeply from Chinese yin and yang. The practice of  it helps to keep a balance through ___26___: left and right, up and ___27___,  breathing in and breathing out... Finally, tai chi brings about a state of body  balance and ___28___ peace.

Now I can honestly say it helps me become much ___29___. I sleep better at  night and I am more active during the day. More importantly, practicing tai chi  has made me better ___30___ the Chinese culture. I am sure I will continue to  practice tai chi and enjoy the advantages it has brought me.

16. A. joking B. waiting C. reading D. explaining

17. A. forgot B. dreamt C. required D. realized

18. A. decision B. problem C. change D. love

19. A. sit B. stand C. lie D. jump

20. A. feared B. wished C. failed D. received

21. A. lazy B. tired C. afraid D. hungry

22. A. thank B. praise C. doubt D. control

23. A. right B. weak C. strict D. interested

24. A. friends B. mistakes C. noise D. progress

25. A. strong B. quiet C. strange D. important

26. A. habits B. chances C. abilities D. opposites

27. A. on B. down C. off D. away

28. A. world B. mind C. life D. thought

29. A. safer B. heavier C. prouder D. healthier

30. A. understand B. teach C. translate D. encourage

Ⅳ. 阅读理解(共25小题;31～50题，每小题1分;51～55题，每小题2分，满分30分)

(A)

根据图示内容，选择最佳答案。

31________ is the closest subway station to the museum.

A. King Square B. Nelson Street C. Embankment D. Charing Cross

32. Which of the following is RIGHT?

A. This is a tea culture museum. B. The museum is open at 9 a.m.

C. The museum is free for the public. D. You can call the museum at  723-1182.

33. The sign means you can ________ here.

A. have a meal B. enjoy photos C. ask for information D. buy a present

34. We can find Museum Shop ________.

A. in East Garden B. next to Dining Space

C. across from Lost & Found D. between Ancient Arts and Modern Arts

35. The text is probably taken from ________.

A. a visitor guide B. a shopping list C. a street map D. a travel diary

(B)

①Is the summer vacation long enough to turn life for the better? Every  person has his own talents and interests. Find something you care about, and you  will see the difference.

②Organize a clean-up program. People often throw litter in the place where  there is already litter. This leaves the community in a mess. The environment  will become better if someone volunteers to help. You could pick up the rubbish  with your friends once a week in your neighborhood. You could also help take  care of the plants every few days. Surely a clean and tidy neighborhood will be  worth the work.

③Show your love to the old. Our city has some old people’s homes. Without  children around them, the old people there might feel lonely once in a while.  Maybe they need your help. In fact, you can do a lot for them. For example, you  can talk with them or play games with them. Listening to them carefully is also  a good idea. Some old people can’t see clearly and they would like you to read  to them. No matter what small things you do, you can make them feel loved.

④Set up a reading project with your friends. Share your favorite books with  them. Besides, you may read aloud to each other and talk about what you read.  Either a book or an article can spark a lively discussion and your further  thinking. The process often challenges more people to take action. The project  is also a good way to welcome newcomers. At the same time, you may find new  friends with similar hobbies.

⑤A two-month summer vacation isn’t that long, but it’s enough to make a  difference.

根据短文内容，选择最佳答案。

36. How often could you pick up the rubbish according to the passage?

A. Once a week. B. Every few weeks. C. Once a month. D. Every few  months.

37. Why do you need to read to some old people at the old people’s  homes?

A. Because you can think further. B. Because you are good at reading.

C. Because they can’t see clearly. D. Because they are away from their  homes.

38. What does the underlined word “spark” in Paragraph 4 probably mean?

A. Finish. B. Start. C. Increase. D. Separate.

39. Which is the right structure (结构) of the passage?

(①=Paragraph 1 ②=Paragraph 2,…)

40. What is the passage mainly about?

A. The people with different interests. B. The greatest time to make a  difference.

C. The reasons for a different summer vacation. D. The ways of making a  summer vacation different.

(C)

The world’s best sportsmen get together for the Olympic Games every four  years. The 2024 Olympic Games will take place in Paris, France. For the first  time, people will watch breaking (霹雳舞) as a new event at the Olympics.

Breaking is also called break dancing. The high-energy, skillful dance  includes moves such as Top Rock, Footwork, Go Down, Freeze and so on. The  dancers need to think and show the moves of the hands and feet quickly.

Break dance battles (斗舞) are a common way to find out who is the best  dancer. In the 1970s in New York City, fighting with others among young people  became more and more serious. Some of them began to deal with the problem  through dance instead. Just then, the dance style first showed up on the  streets. Today people still “battle” in this way. One dancer will show off his  moves, and then the next will continue to compete... The best dancer will be  picked out finally.

Why does breaking become an Olympic event? If a sport is added to the  Olympics, it must be widely practiced by men in at least 75 countries on four  continents (洲) and by women in no fewer than 40 countries on three continents.  Breaking meets this standard. Also, the planners’ goal is to make the Olympics  more interesting to young people.

“Breaking has been accepted as a sport. I really feel proud,” said Xiaoyu,  one breakdancer. “And for the Olympics, it will get more attention from young  people who may not follow some of the traditional sports.”

根据短文内容，判断句子正(T)、误(F)。

41. Footwork is one of the moves of breaking.

42. Breaking first showed up on the streets in Paris in the 1970s.

43. To be an Olympic event, a sport must be practiced by women in 75  countries.

44. Xiaoyu really feels proud that breaking has been accepted as a  sport.

45. The writer mainly introduces the history of the Olympics in the  passage.

(D)

Can you imagine what the human body in the future will be like? Our class  had a discussion about it. Tiantian, an AI (artificial intelligence人工智能) robot,  also joined us. Here are our guesses.

___46___ Humans are now ten centimeters (厘米) taller than 150 years ago. So,  in the future, people will probably be even taller. Why? Because most of us  today have much better food than those in the past.

You must say that people will be stronger according to the first guess.  ___47___ With the development of science and technology, we won’t have much  physical work to do. If people get used to this kind of lifestyle, we will  probably lose most of our muscles (肌肉).

Next, let’s come to our hands and feet. We are already using our feet less,  and our hands more. ___48___ At the same time, our fingers and our eyes will  both get better because they’ll have to do more work together.

Here comes the most interesting one—it’s very possible that people will  have four toes (脚趾), not five. The little toe really isn’t needed anymore.  ___49___ Let’s wait and see.

Last but not least—people won’t have as much hair on their bodies as now,  since we don’t need it to keep ourselves warm.

What do you think of our guesses? ___50___ With the rise of AI, will we  lose the ability of thinking independently?

阅读短文，把A～E五个句子填入文中空缺处，使短文内容完整。

A. But you’re wrong.

B. Will all these things happen?

C. Let’s start with people’s height.

D. Will it still be there in the future?

E. So we can expect our legs will get shorter and our feet smaller.

(E)

Have you ever read Little Women by US writer Louisa May Alcott? The classic  has been changed into plays, films and television programs many times because of  its popularity since it came out in 1868. It tells a story of a mother raising  her four daughters, while their dad is away fighting a war. Meg, the eldest,  wants to live a better life very much. Jo, the second-born, wants nothing more  than to be a writer. Beth is a sweet girl who loves music and always brings joy  to others. The youngest daughter, Amy, dreams of being an artist. After reading  Little Women, I have a feeling of warmth and kindness from the family.

In the following scene, the girls talk about what they can buy with the  very little money they have. They feel hopeful about the future even though  their dreams may not come true.

根据短文内容，回答下列问题。

51. When did Little Women come out?

_______________________________________

52. Who is the third-born girl in the family?

_______________________________________

53. How do the girls feel even though their dreams may not come true?

_______________________________________

54. Why does Amy want to buy drawing pencils?

_______________________________________

55. What does Jo advise her sisters to do at last?

_______________________________________

四、语言运用(共10分)

Ⅴ. 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Westwood National Park is a very huge national park. It is well-known  ___56___ its fascinating scenes and many kinds of animals, especially bears. It  is one of my favorite ___57___ (place) to take photos.

I will never forget that afternoon. Birds flew over the ___58___ (peace)  lake. The mountains ___59___ (cover) with white snow. With the camera held to my  eye, I was recording the amazing picture. All of a sudden, I found two baby  bears far away running after each other ___60___ (happy). Sometimes they stopped  to look around; sometimes one rubbed (蹭) against the other’s back. They had a  lot of fun playing in ___61___ sun. At that moment, I completely lost myself in  the sweet environment. How I wished that time could stand still! I really hoped  ___62___ (catch) the warm scene with my camera and I did it. After a while, I  ___63___ (hear) a loud roar (吼叫) from the mother bear. The two baby bears stood  up quickly ___64___ ran back to the forest. I was so lucky that I could take  such a picture.

The photo always reminds ___65___ (I) that the real beauty is “nature” in  nature.

五、书面表达(共20分)

(A)

66. 新西兰某中学现招募志愿者，为其参加“汉语桥”(Chinese  Bridge)中文演讲比赛的选手进行线上辅导。假如你是李华，请根据下面要点和要求，用英语写一封不少于40词的自荐信。

要点：

(1)表达意愿;

(2)说明优势。

要求：要点齐全;表述通顺;简洁得体。

Dear Sir or Madam,

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Yours,

Li Hua

(B)

67. 每个人都有自己的闪光点，请以“My Shining Point”为题，写一篇不少于80词的英语短文。

要求：

(1)讲述一个自己的故事;

(2)你的感悟;

(3)适当增加细节，行文连贯;

(4)文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和校名。

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2024年长春市中考英语试卷参考答案

一、基础知识(共10分)

Ⅰ. 单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。

【1题答案】

【答案】C

【2题答案】

【答案】D

【3题答案】

【答案】B

【4题答案】

【答案】A

【5题答案】

【答案】D

【6题答案】

【答案】B

【7题答案】

【答案】A

【8题答案】

【答案】C

【9题答案】

【答案】C

【10题答案】

【答案】A

二、交际运用(共5分)

【11~15题答案】

【答案】11. D 12. C 13. F 14. B 15. A

三、阅读(共45分)

Ⅲ. 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)

【16~30题答案】

【答案】16. A 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. B  28. B 29. D 30. A

Ⅳ. 阅读理解(共25小题;31～50题，每小题1分;51～55题，每小题2分，满分30分)

(A)

【31~35题答案】

【答案】31. B 32. D 33. C 34. C 35. A

(B)

【36~40题答案】

【答案】36. A 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. B

(C)

【41~45题答案】

【答案】41. T 42. F 43. F 44. T 45. F

(D)

【46~50题答案】

【答案】46. C 47. A 48. E 49. D 50. B

(E)

【51~55题答案】

【答案】51. In 1868. 52. Beth.

53. They feel hopeful about the future.

54. Because she really needs them.

55. Jo advises her sisters to buy what they need and work hard enough to  make it.

四、语言运用(共10分)

Ⅴ. 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

【56~65题答案】

【答案】56. for

57. places 58. peaceful

59. were covered

60. happily

61. the 62. to catch

63. heard 64. and 65. me

五、书面表达(共20分)

(A)

【66题答案】

【答案】例文

Dear Sir or Madam,

I’m Li Hua and I’d like to be a volunteer to provide online tutoring for  the contestants in the Chinese speech contest I am good at Chinese and speech,  and I can talk freely with foreigners. Also, I’m quite outgoing and  warm-hearted. I believe that I’ll be qualified for this job.

Looking forward to your reply.

Yours,

Li Hua

(B)

【67题答案】

【答案】例文

My Shining Point

I meet many excellent people every day and at the same time I also find  myself really good. I can see the world with kind eyes. I think I don’t like to  complain. I find it important to have a positive attitude.

Last month, I was chosen to play a role in an English show. It was  difficult for me to memorize the lines in a short time. However, I regarded it  as a challenge, which was also a good chance to improve my English. So I made an  effort to practice. Finally, I made it and received high praise.

In fact it is my positive attitude that brings out the best in me all the  time.

中考英语应试技巧

一、听力

听力题主要考查整体理解和获取对话核心信息的能力。应试技巧：1.克服紧张心理，放松自己。心态平稳，才能有效发挥。2.试卷下发后，浏览问题题干，快速预测，以便带着问题有目的地去听。3.集中注意力听录音，果断答题。4.要学会放弃。如果有部分信息确实没听清楚，不要纠缠，马上放弃，以免影响后面答题。5.平时听力训练时要养成简写速记的习惯。

二、完形填空

完形填空题考查词汇知识、阅读能力、逻辑推理判断能力。应试技巧：1.快速通读短文，把握大意。特别注重首尾句的理解，抓住各段的主题句，理顺思路，为后面答题做好铺垫。2.在通读全文、理解大意的基础上，根据固定搭配、习惯用法、上下文暗示先选出一部分答案。然后细读全文，联系上下文内容、短语意思、语法法则、固定搭配等，对选项进行逐一比较和筛选，排除错误选项，最终确定正确答案。3.个别无法确定答案的，先跳过，往往能从下文暗示中找到答案。4.通读全文，验证答案。完成答案后，把所选的答案代入原文，通读全文，对所选答案进行核实调整。重要提示：切忌不通读全文，看一空填一空。

三、阅读理解

阅读理解主要考查学生阅读理解、获取信息和处理信息的能力。应试技巧：1.先看问题，再阅读。带着问题快速阅读全文，把握文章大意，明确作者观点和态度，寻求所需要的信息。2.注重主题句，各段的首尾句。3.概括大意，揣摩文章中心，掌握主旨和作者意图，不要过分推敲语言点。4.遇到生词要根据上下文或语境猜词义，不必停顿时间过长。

四、书面表达

书面表达考查学生综合语言运用能力。应试技巧：写作前：1.审题。审题要仔细，理清写作的体裁和格式，明确信息要点及词数限定等。抓住主旨要义，形成书面表达的思路及框架。2.整编。整合信息要点，分清段落层次，编写出提纲。写作中：1.根据体裁和信息要点明确作文所需要的重点句型和短语，尽量使用自己熟知的句型和短语。遇到不会词句，换用另一种意义相近的句式表达。2.遣词造句，用词地道。3.行文连贯。句与句之间，段与段之间连接自然连贯。写作后：1.检查与修改。重点检查：要点是否全面;内容是否完整;格式是否正确;句型、短语是否准确;语法有否错误;拼写有否错误;字数是否符合要求。2.考生在答卷时，写草稿，或写简略提纲，书写清楚规范，做到零涂改，确保卷面整洁。